Latest TCS Aptitude Question SOLUTION: 12233344441122223333334……………………………………what is 2888th no in this sequence

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12233344441122223333334……………………………………what is 2888th no in this sequence

Asked In TCS Anshu sharma (9 years ago)

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karthikeyank  (9 years ago)

Ans:1
1st term=1223334444=10
2nd term=11222233333344444444=20
3rd term=40
it increase double=10 20 40 80 160 320 640 1280 2560
.....9th term=2560
in 9th term 1s coming 256 time,
2s coming 512 time,
3s coming 768 time,
4s coming 1024 time,
Total= 2560
actual qustn is 2888th term
in 10th term 1s coming 512 times
=2560+338=2888 [336

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venkatesh  (9 years ago)

3
1223334444 has 10 numbers
11222233333344444444 has 20 numbers.
similarly 111222222333333333444444444444 has 30 next 40 and so on.
In this way upto 23rd line we will have a total of 2760 numbers.10(n*n+1)/2
2888-2760=128
2761 is 1 and this is 24th line .
in 24th line 1 repeats 24 times
2 repeats 2*24=48 times.
3 repeats 72 times.
24+48 = 72 .. 128-72=56.
so after the last 2 taking 56 steps is giving us 3.
Hence the 2888 number is 3.

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manoj kumar  (9 years ago)

answer is 2
take the series 1st time 1 is coming 1,2-2,3-3,4-4=10
2nd time 1-2,2-4,3-6,4-8=20
3rd time it continious he total also it doubles 10+20+40+80+160+320+640+1280=2550
9th time 1-192,2-382
2550+192=2742 we need 2888 then definetly it s 2 because 2 comes 382 times

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manoj kumar  (9 years ago)

sorry in the above 1=256
and 2=512
2550+256=2806
2806+512=2880 will be in this so answer is 2

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Fakir Mohan Nayak  (9 years ago)

Answer will be 1

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sunil kumar  (9 years ago)

1 is the answer

the first 1 to 4 has 10 nos. next 1 to 4 has 20 nos. next 1 to 4 nos. would be 40nos.
hence a G.P. is formed 10, 20, 40, .....
the (2560 + 320)th no. will be 1

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Rahul Kabra  (9 years ago)

answer is 2.
the series ends with 4, whose count from the beginning is 10. hence divide by 10.
we need to divide 2888/10, the quotient is 2, hence 2 is the number.
you can verify it for other values also.
let's say what is the 32nd digit.
32/10 gives quotient 3, hence result is 3.
40th digit:- 40/10=4, hence 40th digit is 4.

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Vaibhav Lal  (9 years ago)

1*1(times1)2*1(times2)3*1(times3)4*1(times4)1*2(times1)2*2(times2)3*2(times3).....
taking 1*1(times1)2*1(times2)3*1(times3)4*1(times4) as one term.
The sum of first term is 10 next is 20...
1 st term is multiplied by 1.(1*10).
2 nd term is multiplied by 2 (2*10).
280 term will be multiplied by 28.
now next term will be multiplied by 29.
so 29(1's),(2*29)(2's)=87.
so next will be 3.
Hence 3 is the solution.

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Saravjeet Singh  (9 years ago)

3
by making the program in java

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karthikeyank  (9 years ago)

sorry
=2560+338=2888 [336

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karthikeyank  (9 years ago)

=2560+328=2888 [336

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rameshnaidu  (9 years ago)

4 is the answer

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Divyansh jaiswal  (8 years ago)

ans is 3 by converting into gp

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