Latest Capgemini Aptitude Question SOLUTION: a man buys m no. of pens for rs. n each and sells n no. of pens for rs. m each. then what is the profit he have earned?

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(#M40049157) CAPGEMINI Numerical Ability question profit and loss Keep an EYE

a man buys m no. of pens for rs. n each and sells n no. of pens for rs. m each. then what is the profit he have earned?

Asked In Capgemini Trisha Chaudhuri (9 years ago)

Solved Atasi Read Solution (14)

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Read Solution (14) :

priya saha  (9 years ago)

c.p. of 1 pen=Rs n (given each)
so c.p. of m pens=rs mn

s.p. of 1 pen =rs m
so s.p. of n pens=rs mn
so profit =s.p.-c.p.=0(zero)

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes (66) | No (17)  

Atasi  (9 years ago) Best Solution

the cost price of m no. of pens = n.

and the sell price of n no. of pens = m
so, the sell price of 1 no. of pen = m/n
so, the sell price of m no. of pens =(m/n)*m=m^2/n
so profit=(m^2/n)-n=((m^2-n^2)/n)

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes (33) | No (18)  

dilip  (9 years ago)

a man buys m pens for rs. n each= m*n=rs. mn

he sells n pens for rs. m each =n*m=rs. mn
but, actual cost for n pens is =n*n=rs. n^2

profit or loss depends on value of mn-n^2==>n(m-n)/100

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes (4) | No   

Bhushan  (9 years ago)

Let 6 item brought at 5 rs. and sold 5 items at 6 rs.
Then l.c.m of 6 and 5=30
S.P of items=30/6*5=25
C.P of items=30/5*6=36
Loss=36-25=11
Loss%=11/25*100=44%

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes (3) | No (3)  

MeenaKumari  (6 years ago)

there will be loss no profit

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes (3) | No   

varun kumar  (8 years ago)

man buys m pens for rs n=m*n
sells n pens for rs m=n*m
there is no profit and no loss

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes (2) | No   

shubham  (7 years ago)

c.p of each pen = n
s.p of each pen =m
pofit = s.p-c.p therefore
profit =m-n
total profit =individual profit*no. of pens
hence total profit= (m-n)*m

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes (2) | No   

avinash singh gautam  (9 years ago)

i think answer would be =n^2 Rs

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes (1) | No (5)  

zikpe  (5 years ago)

Quantity. Price
CP m n -----> eq 1
SP n m -----> eq 2

by making quantity same we can easily calculate...

multiply eq 1 by n & eq 2 by m


Quantity. Price

CP n * ( m n ) -----> eq 1
SP m *( n m ) -----> eq 2


Quantity. Price
CP nm n^2 -----> eq 1
SP mn m ^2 -----> eq 2


Profit will be = ( m^2 - n^2 )

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes (1) | No   

shashikanth  (9 years ago)

"m" -->consider an example like: buys 3 pens at rs 2/each i.e c.p= 6 rs,

buys 2 pens at rs 3/each i.e 6rs

so s.p for 3 pens is RS 9
profit is (6-9)=3 which is "m"

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neha pallavi  (9 years ago)

In this question must be N

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes | No   

TADISETTI RAJU  (6 years ago)

profit is 0
m*n=n*m

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes | No   

Ayushi Agrawal  (6 years ago)

Cost price of 1 pen is = n
Selling price of 1 pen is = m
Cost price of n pens will be= n*n
Selling price of n pens is= n*m
Profit = S.P-C.P
= n(m-n)

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes | No (1)  

pooja  (4 years ago)

no profit no loss

Is this solution Helpfull? Yes | No   

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